It just is. Think about it.

Firstly, as far as we know π is a normal number¹. Meaning, digits are distributed uniformly amongst its decimal – that is each digit is as likely to appear at any decimal (i.e 1 out of 10 chance).
We’ve looked 314,000,000,000,000 deep into the decimals of π and from what we’ve gathered it seems to behave as we’d except from such a number.

A palindrome is defined as:

“a word, number, phrase, or other sequence of symbols that reads the same backwards as forwards”²

For example, number-wise, 101 is a palindrome.
There is immediately an issue with this definition: how does one read an infinite number backward?
This reflection is as foolish as it is close-minded. Yes, palindrome are ill-defined for infinite sequences but that does not stop us from using our brains and try to imagine what it could mean for those cases.

9 is a palindrome, 99 is a palindrome, 999 also, etc. Thus 9999… ad infinitum could also be said to be a palindrome. Thus, when it comes to infinite palindromes, you just need to be a bit more creative.

Back to π. As it is a normal number, any sequence of any length is as probable to appear as any other sequence of the same length. So if we want a point of inversion where π runs the sequence so far in reverse we need to get lucky. But when it comes to infinity luck is meaningless. π will reverse at some point.
Then what? If that’s the case then π is finite. Not to fret, my boy! π will then continue as normal which means that as some point this there will be another inversion point! Then another, and another, ad infinitum! This means that π IS a palindrome! I’m right! And all you non-believer will have to live in the shadow of my greatness!

See you later, suckers!
            Paul <3